Mike listens carefully to the exchanges between team members during meetings and is particularly adept at using humor

Mike listens carefully to the exchanges between team members during meetings and is particularly adept at using humor to lighten any tense situations that arise between team members because of those exchanges. Mike plays the

a. completer role.

b. communicator role.

c. cooperator role.

d. calibrator role.

(b) Medium/Analysis

105. Because the ________ role involves gathering information from the larger organization and informing those within the organization about team goals, activities and success, it is often filled by the team manager.

a. coordinator

b. completer

c. consul

d. contractor

(c)

106. All of the following are examples of temporary teams EXCEPT

a. cross-functional team

b. product development team

c. task force

d. self-managed team

(d) Easy/Comprehension

107. The special challenges that virtual teams pose for a manager include all of the following EXCEPT

a. building trust with virtual team.

b. not being physically seen by managers.

c. nature of decision making by virtual team.

d. nature of communication used with virtual team.

(c) Medium/Analysis

108. All of the following statements are correct about top management teams EXCEPT

a. Top teams are most effective when there is limited diversity in their composition.

b. Top management teams generally function without formal rules for team design or structure.

c. Top management teams are important for their symbolic roles.

d. Top management teams make decisions on new products, markets and expansions and divestitures.

(a) Difficult/Analysis

109. Self-managed teams

a. increase the hierarchy in an organization.

b. operate under goals provided by top level management and passed down through the chain of command.

c. have an appointed leader, but can select individual team members.

d. can be found at all levels in an organization.

(d) Difficult/Evaluation

110. Self managed teams typically have all the following goals EXCEPT

a. increased profitability.

b. improved quality.

c. cost reduction.

d. meeting deadlines.

(a) Medium/Comprehension

111. Empowerment means

a. having the responsibility to reach goals.

b. having the authority to reach goals.

c. having the ability to make decisions.

d. having the responsibility and authority to reach goals.

(d) Medium/Knowledge

112. A self-directed team

a. manages itself but still has a team leader and has the potential for low, medium or high autonomy.

b. has a leader who resides outside the team and has the potential for low, medium or high autonomy.

c. has a leader that resides outside the team and has the potential for low autonomy.

d. makes all decisions internally about leadership and how the work is done and has the potential for high autonomy.

(d) Difficult/Evaluation

113. An effective team can be ensured when decisions are made on all of the following items but

a. team composition.

b. team diversity

c. team size.

d. All of the above.

(b) Medium/Knowledge

114. Research on team size suggests

a. groups larger than 20 members are highly effective.

b. teams with fewer members are less effective at working through differences.

c. larger groups are generally required for very complex tasks.

d. there is little relationship between team size and performance.

(c) Medium/Evaluation

115. Which of the following statements regarding team size and diversity is correct?

a. The more diverse the team, the more likely the team is to engage in groupthink.

b. The rule of thumb for team size is between 10 and 20 members.

c. Teams that believe in the value of diversity perform better than those which do not.

d. Teams whose members have complementary skills are less successful than those with specialized skills.

(c) Difficult/Evaluation

Recently, a neighbor you have known for years won a lottery and received a $250,000 prize

Recently, a neighbor you have known for years won a lottery and received a $250,000 prize. This neighbor decided to invest all of his winnings in a new business venture that he knew only had a five percent chance of success. Previous to this, the neighbor had always been ultra conservative with his money and had refused to invest in this business venture as recently as last week. Which one of the following behaviors most applies to your neighbor's decision to invest in this business venture now?    A.  overoptimisim B.  affect heuristic C.  loss aversion D.  house money E.  get-evenitis Refer to section 22.3

20.

Amy has been investing in stocks so she can accumulate sufficient money to purchase her own home. These savings are currently valued at $82,500. As recently as last month, her savings were worth in excess of $110,000. Today, Amy found the perfect house. She knows she can withdraw her savings to pay on this house and borrow the remaining balance from her father at zero percent interest. However, Amy is refusing now to buy any house until her savings increase in value back to their $110,000 previous valuation. Amy is displaying which one of the following behaviors?    A.  representativeness heuristic B.  loss aversion C.  house money effect D.  underconfidence E.  confirmation bias Refer to section 22.3

21.

Steve purchased a stock last year for $34 a share. The stock increased in value to $36 a share before declining to its current value of $30. Steve has decided to sell the stock, but only if he can receive $34 a share or better. Steve is suffering most from which one of the following behavioral conditions?    A.  representativeness heuristic B.  house money C.  get-evenitis D.  randomness E.  arbitrage reaction Refer to section 22.3

22.

Mike is a stock broker and financial planner. Phil is one of Mike's clients. Phil prefers to meet with Mike just once a year to review his investment portfolio. At their most recent meeting, Phil stated he believes the stock market is going to decline in value over the next six months. Thus, Phil instructed Mike to sell every stock he owns that is currently worth more than what he paid to purchase it. Phil also instructed Mike to retain any stock that would create a capital loss if sold. Phil is displaying the behavior known as:    A.  overconfidence. B.  arbitrage theory. C.  the disposition effect. D.  the house money effect. E.  a confirmation bias. Refer to section 22.3

Mike gets angry because Ben made a better grade on a test than he did. They get into an argument, and Mike

A(n) _________ occurs when one person places another in fear or apprehension of an immediate, offensive bodily contact. 
A. Battery
B. Assault
C. Assault and battery
D. Negligence
E. Strict responsibility

An assault occurs when one person places another in fear or apprehension of an immediate, offensive bodily contact.

Which of the following is true regarding the apprehension necessary for the tort of assault? 
A. Apprehension and fear are the same thing.
B. A person may be in apprehension of physical harm, even if the same person is too courageous to be afraid of that physical harm.
C. Actual injury is necessary for valid apprehension to be proven.
D. The test for assault involves subjective apprehension, not reasonable apprehension.
E. There is no requirement that the apprehension be of immediate physical contact.

A person may be in apprehension of physical harm but be too courageous to be afraid. An assault occurs if apprehension exists, regardless of fear.

Robby calls Bobby on the telephone and threatened to come over and break his nose. Which of the following is true? 
A. Robby's conduct constitutes a battery.
B. Robby's conduct constitutes an assault.
C. Robby's conduct constitutes both a battery and an assault.
D. Robby's conduct does not constitute an assault because there is no question of immediate bodily harm.
E. Robby's conduct does not constitute an assault because there was no physical contact.

If someone called on the telephone and threatened to come over and break someone's nose, this is not an assault because there is no question of immediate bodily harm.

Which of the following it true regarding the intent needed for a battery? 
A. The intent of a person in making a contact is irrelevant for establishing liability.
B. A plaintiff may not prove liability unless the plaintiff can establish that the defendant intended to be offensive.
C. A plaintiff may not prove liability without demonstrating that the defendant intended to be offensive and also that harmful contact occurred.
D. A plaintiff may prove liability without having to demonstrate that the defendant intended to be offensive, but the plaintiff must establish harmful contact.
E. Accidental contact may establish a battery if economic injury is sustained.

Almost any unwanted intentional contact constitutes a battery, even if harmless, and intent is irrelevant for establishing liability. If the touch was intended as a joke but a reasonable person would be offended, the contact is deemed "offensive."

Mike gets angry because Ben made a better grade on a test than he did. They get into an argument, and Mike takes a swing at Ben intending to hit him. Ben shoves Mike in order to avoid the blow. Which of the following is true regarding Ben's actions? 
A. Ben has committed a battery.
B. Ben has committed both an assault and a battery.
C. Ben has not committed an assault or a battery because he acted in self-defense.
D. Ben cannot rely on self-defense because he was involved in the argument and not completely innocent.
E. Ben cannot rely upon self-defense because his life was not in danger.

The most common defense is self-defense, responding to the force of another with comparable force to defend yourself. You cannot respond with greater force than is being used against you.

Which of the following gives immunity to providers of interactive computer services for liability they might otherwise incur on account of material disseminated by them but created by others? 
A. The Internet Communications Act of 2000.
B. The Interactive Computer Services Protection Act of 2004.
C. The Communications Decency Act of 1996.
D. The Internet Communications Protection Act of 1998.
E. The Blog Protection Act of 2001.

One section of the Communications Decency Act of 1996 gives immunity to providers of interactive computer services for liability they might otherwise incur on account of material disseminated by them but created by others.